CPCE practice test across all eight areas

Which assessment approach focuses on the unique pattern of one individual rather than on comparisons with group norms?

1. Norm-referenced
   Norm-referenced interpretation places a score within a group distribution, so it is a nomothetic practice rather than a focus on one person's unique pattern.
2. Nomothetic
   Nomothetic assessment compares people on shared dimensions to find general patterns; it is the opposite of the individual-centered approach in the stem, and the two terms are easy to swap.
3. Idiographic
   Idiographic assessment, Allport's term, studies one person's own organization of traits and experiences through case histories, self-monitoring, or life-story material.

A test has a reliability coefficient of .80. What proportion of observed-score variance is attributed to true-score variance?

1. 20%
   20% is the error variance (1 minus .80), the part of observed variance that is not true-score variance.
2. 80%
   A reliability coefficient is read directly, without squaring: .80 means 80% of observed-score variance is true-score variance.
3. 64%
   64% comes from squaring .80, the step used with a validity coefficient to find shared variance with a criterion; squaring a reliability coefficient is the common error.

Scores on a college admissions test are correlated with students' grade point averages at the end of their first year. What kind of validity evidence does this provide?

1. Content
   Content evidence rests on expert judgment that items represent the domain, not on correlations with an outside criterion such as GPA.
2. Predictive
   Correlating admission scores with a criterion collected later, here first-year GPA, is predictive evidence, one kind of test-criterion evidence.
3. Concurrent
   Concurrent evidence correlates a test with a criterion measured at about the same time; first-year GPA arrives months after the admission test.

The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery (ASVAB) combines subtests such as arithmetic reasoning, word knowledge, and mechanical comprehension. Which type of test is it?

1. A special aptitude test
   A special aptitude test measures one narrow ability, such as clerical speed or mechanical reasoning; mechanical comprehension is only one ASVAB subtest among several.
2. An achievement battery
   An achievement battery measures learning already completed in school subjects; subtests such as word knowledge look similar, but the ASVAB is built and used to predict future performance.
3. A multiple aptitude battery
   The ASVAB measures several distinct abilities in one package to predict success in training and work, which is what defines a multiple aptitude battery.

A client who is Deaf takes a standardized test with its spoken directions delivered by an ASL interpreter. What is the key requirement for this change to count as an accommodation?

1. It lowers the passing score to reflect the client's disability
   Lowering the cut score changes the standard the score is judged against, so the result no longer means the same thing; that is a modification, not an accommodation.
2. It changes access to the test without changing the construct measured
   Changing access without changing the construct is what makes it an accommodation: hearing spoken directions is unrelated to the skill being tested, so the score keeps its standard meaning.
3. It shortens the test to fit within the standard time limit
   Cutting items changes content sampling and lowers reliability, which alters what the score represents; shortening a test is a modification, not an accommodation.

A screener flags 50 clients as positive, and diagnostic interviews confirm the disorder in 40 of them. What is the screener's positive predictive value?

1. 40%
   40 is the count of confirmed cases, not a percentage; PPV divides those 40 true positives by all 50 positive screens.
2. 20%
   20% is the share of positive screens that were false positives (10 of 50), the complement of PPV.
3. 80%
   Positive predictive value is true positives divided by all positive screens: 40 / 50 = 80%, the chance that a client who screens positive has the disorder.

On a hiring test, 60% of White applicants and 30% of Black applicants pass. Under the EEOC four-fifths rule, what does this indicate?

1. No adverse impact, since both groups had some passers
   The rule compares selection rates, not whether anyone in a group passed; a few passers in each group says nothing about the ratio.
2. Evidence of adverse impact, since .50 is below .80
   Under the four-fifths rule of the Uniform Guidelines (1978), a group's selection rate below 80% of the highest group's rate signals adverse impact; here .30 / .60 = .50.
3. Adverse impact only if the gap exceeds 50 points
   A 50-point gap is not the test: the rule is a ratio of selection rates, and reading it as a percentage-point gap is the usual misapplication.

A clinic already uses an intake interview and a symptom checklist. A counselor asks whether adding a new inventory would improve diagnostic accuracy beyond them. Which concept is this?

1. Inter-rater reliability
   Inter-rater reliability is agreement between scorers; it describes scoring consistency, not whether a measure adds anything new.
2. Convergent validity
   Convergent validity shows that a measure correlates with others of the same construct; strong overlap with the existing checklist would suggest the new inventory adds little.
3. Incremental validity
   Incremental validity asks whether a new measure adds accurate information beyond what the interview and checklist already provide, which decides whether it is worth the time and cost.

A school counselor plans career activities for second and third graders. Which developmental goal is MOST appropriate for this age group?

1. Occupational specialization
   Narrowing to one occupation belongs to late adolescence and early adulthood, Super's specification task; it skips the stages that come first.
2. Career awareness
   Elementary programs build awareness: that work exists, that people do many kinds of jobs, and that school connects to work, laying the base for later exploration.
3. Career planning
   Career planning and preparation, such as course selection and postsecondary plans, is the high school goal in developmental program models, too advanced for 7- and 8-year-olds.

A counselor asks a client to diagram three generations of relatives' occupations and attitudes toward work. Which tool is being used?

1. Lifeline exercise
   A lifeline charts the client's own significant life and career events over time; it does not diagram relatives across generations.
2. Career construction interview
   Savickas's career construction interview asks about role models, favorite media, sayings, and early recollections; it is a story-based interview, not a family occupational map.
3. Career genogram
   A career genogram maps occupations, education, and messages about work across at least three generations, helping clients see family patterns that shape their own choices.

According to SCCT, perceived discrimination that keeps a client from turning her interest in engineering into a choice goal is BEST described as what?

1. A distal background affordance
   Distal background affordances are earlier contextual factors, such as childhood opportunities, that shape learning experiences long before a choice; they act through self-efficacy and outcome expectations, not at the moment of choice.
2. A proximal contextual barrier
   In SCCT, proximal contextual influences such as discrimination or lack of support act near the point of choice and moderate whether interests turn into goals and goals into actions.
3. A negative outcome expectation
   Outcome expectations are beliefs about what will follow from performing a behavior and feed into interests; barriers like discrimination that act at the point of choice are modeled as contextual influences on the interest-to-goal link.

Which concept describes careers that move across several employers and draw validation from outside the current organization?

1. Boundaryless career
   Arthur and Rousseau's boundaryless career crosses organizational lines, relying on portable skills, outside networks, and validation from beyond the current employer.
2. Linear career
   A linear career climbs a hierarchy, usually inside one organization, the traditional pattern the boundaryless concept was defined against.
3. Protean career orientation
   Hall's protean career centers on self-direction and personal values, that is, who steers the career, not movement across employers; the two terms are often confused.

In the theory of work adjustment, a worker who tolerates considerable mismatch with the job before trying to change anything shows high levels of which adjustment style?

1. Flexibility
   In the theory of work adjustment, flexibility is how much mismatch (discorrespondence) a worker can tolerate before becoming dissatisfied enough to act.
2. Perseverance
   Perseverance is how long a worker keeps adjusting before leaving the job; it measures persistence after adjustment starts, not tolerance before it.
3. Reactiveness
   Reactiveness is adjusting by changing oneself, such as one's needs or skills; it describes how a worker adjusts once action begins.

A client's job matches her interests closely, yet she is intensely dissatisfied with the corporate culture. Which assessment would BEST inform decisions about fit?

1. A comprehensive diagnostic clinical interview
   A diagnostic interview looks for psychopathology; nothing in the case points to a disorder, only to a poor fit with the setting's culture.
2. A standardized measure of the client's work values
   Dissatisfaction with culture and rewards is a values question: in TWA, satisfaction depends on whether the setting's reinforcers match the worker's values, so a values measure such as the MIQ or a card sort informs fit.
3. An alternative vocational interest assessment
   Her interests already match the job, so another interest measure would repeat what is known; the dissatisfaction lies elsewhere.

What term describes people who want a job but have stopped looking because they believe no work is available for them?

1. Frictionally unemployed
   Frictional unemployment is short-term job searching between jobs; these workers are still looking, which the people in the stem are not.
2. Underemployed workers
   Underemployed workers have jobs but work below their skills or desired hours; the people in the stem have no job at all.
3. Discouraged workers
   The Bureau of Labor Statistics defines discouraged workers as people who want and are available for work but have stopped searching because they believe no jobs are available; they fall outside the official unemployment rate.

A middle school counselor plans a six-session group that teaches bystander skills to students identified as at risk for bullying. According to ASGW, which type of group is this?

1. Task/work facilitation group
   Task/work groups exist to finish a product or reach an organizational goal, such as a school safety committee; this group builds members' own skills.
2. Psychoeducation group
   ASGW describes psychoeducation groups as structured, skill-teaching groups that prevent future difficulties among people who may be at risk, which fits a bystander-skills curriculum.
3. Psychotherapy group
   Psychotherapy groups treat severe or chronic problems; a short preventive curriculum for students is far from that level of care.

Members of a group never discuss it, but everyone has learned not to mention the leader's frequent lateness. What type of norm is this?

1. Group role
   A role is the function one member tends to take, such as harmonizer or scapegoat; a rule followed by everyone is a norm, not a role.
2. Explicit norm
   Explicit norms are stated openly, such as attendance or confidentiality rules; this rule was never spoken.
3. Implicit norm
   Implicit norms are unstated rules that members infer from behavior; Corey advises leaders to surface them because they can block honest interaction.

According to Corey, what is a main risk of relying heavily on structured exercises throughout a group?

1. The group may drift from its original theme
   Structured exercises usually keep a group on its theme; drifting is a risk of too little structure, not too much.
2. Members may become dependent on the leader for direction
   Corey warns that heavy reliance on exercises leaves members waiting for the leader to start and steer the work, which undercuts their own initiative and spontaneous interaction.
3. Members may disclose too little in the first session
   Guarded disclosure in a first session is normal for any new group and is not a result of using structured activities.

Which task-group technique has members generate ideas silently in writing, share them round-robin, and then rank them?

1. Delphi survey technique
   The Delphi technique gathers anonymous expert judgments through successive questionnaire rounds, usually without a face-to-face meeting.
2. Force-field analysis
   Force-field analysis, from Lewin, lists the forces driving and restraining a change; it is a planning tool, not a generate-share-rank sequence.
3. Nominal group technique
   The nominal group technique runs silent written idea generation, round-robin sharing without debate, and individual ranking, which limits the pull of dominant members.

A member regularly makes sarcastic jokes right after others disclose painful material. According to Corey, what is the BEST leader response?

1. Ignore the jokes to avoid reinforcing them with attention
   Planned ignoring borrows from behavior management; in a group it leaves the hurtful pattern running and signals that disclosures are not protected.
2. Invite him to state his reactions directly and hear their impact
   Corey treats sarcasm after disclosures as indirect hostility: asking the member to state his reactions directly and hear their effect turns the pattern into interpersonal learning and protects those who disclose.
3. Remove him from the group for violating the safety norm
   Removal is a last resort for members who cannot be helped in the group; it skips working on a behavior the group can address.

What does research generally show about highly confrontational group approaches for substance use disorders?

1. They work best for clients with low motivation to change
   Clients with low motivation are the most likely to disengage when confronted; motivational approaches are designed for them.
2. They are generally less effective than supportive approaches
   Reviews summarized by Miller and Rollnick and in SAMHSA's group therapy guidance find that aggressive confrontation yields poorer outcomes, more resistance, and more dropout than empathic, supportive, and motivational approaches.
3. They are the best way to break through clients' denial
   Breaking denial by confrontation is a belief from older attack-therapy traditions; outcome research does not support it.

During a feedback exercise, members from direct-communication cultures criticize members from indirect-communication cultures as evasive. What should the leader do FIRST?

1. Coach the indirect members to give more direct feedback
   Coaching only the indirect members treats the dominant style as the correct one, which pathologizes a cultural difference.
2. Name the style difference and help members adapt their feedback
   Naming the difference between direct and indirect styles turns the clash into learning and helps both sides give and receive feedback in ways that respect their norms.
3. Move on to another activity to avoid escalating the conflict
   Moving on leaves the rupture unaddressed and teaches members that cultural conflict cannot be discussed in the group.

After one drink breaks months of sobriety, a client thinks 'I've blown it, so I might as well keep drinking.' What does Marlatt call this reaction?

1. Conditioned withdrawal response
   A conditioned withdrawal response is a learned physical reaction to drug cues; the client's reaction here is a thought about the lapse, not a bodily cue response.
2. Spontaneous recovery
   Spontaneous recovery is the return of an extinguished conditioned response after a pause; it names a conditioning process, not the client's interpretation of the drink.
3. Abstinence violation effect
   Marlatt's abstinence violation effect is the all-or-nothing reaction to a lapse, blamed on a stable personal failing, that turns one drink into a full relapse; treatment reframes a lapse as something to learn from.

Which microskill does a counselor use to pull together the client's main thoughts and feelings at the end of a session?

1. Summarizing
   Summarizing pulls together the client's main thoughts, feelings, and behaviors across part or all of a session and is used to open, organize, or close it.
2. Encouraging
   Encouragers are brief prompts such as nods, 'uh-huh,' or a repeated key word that keep the client talking; they do not gather material together.
3. Paraphrasing
   A paraphrase restates the essence of a single client statement; a summary covers a longer span and ties several themes together.

A counselor spends part of the first session explaining how counseling works and what the client and counselor will each do. What is this process called?

1. Reflection of meaning
   Reflection of meaning, an Ivey microskill, mirrors the values and meanings beneath a client's experience; it does not explain how counseling works.
2. Immediacy
   Immediacy addresses what is happening right now in the counselor-client relationship, not an orientation to the counseling process.
3. Role induction
   Role induction orients a client to the process, what each person will do, and how sessions run; it is linked to lower dropout and better outcomes.

After Watson and Rayner conditioned Little Albert to fear a white rat, he also feared a rabbit and a fur coat. What does this illustrate?

1. Higher-order conditioning
   Higher-order conditioning requires pairing an established conditioned stimulus with a new neutral one; the rabbit and coat were never paired with the rat.
2. Stimulus discrimination
   Stimulus discrimination is the opposite process, responding to the conditioned stimulus but not to similar ones, whereas Albert responded to the similar ones too.
3. Stimulus generalization
   Albert's conditioned fear spread from the rat to other furry objects that resembled it, which is stimulus generalization.

A 5-year-old judges which of two rows of coins has more by looking only at which row is longer. According to Piaget, what limitation is this?

1. Irreversibility
   Irreversibility is the inability to mentally run an action backward, such as imagining the coins pushed back together; the stem describes attention locked on one feature, row length, instead.
2. Artificialism
   Artificialism is the preoperational belief that people made natural things such as lakes or mountains; it has nothing to do with judging quantity.
3. Centration
   Centration is focusing on one salient feature, here row length, while ignoring others such as spacing; it explains failure on number conservation.

A student studies very little after each monthly exam and then crams heavily as the next exam date approaches. Which reinforcement schedule does this pattern reflect?

1. Variable interval
   Variable-interval schedules, such as pop quizzes at unpredictable times, produce steady, moderate responding without a pre-deadline burst.
2. Variable ratio
   Variable-ratio schedules reinforce after an unpredictable number of responses and produce high, steady rates; reinforcement here follows the calendar, not the amount of studying.
3. Fixed interval
   A fixed-interval schedule reinforces the first response after a set time, producing a scalloped pattern: little effort after reinforcement and a burst as the next one nears, as with monthly exams.

Which infant attachment classification, identified by Main and Solomon, is most strongly associated with maltreatment and frightening caregiver behavior?

1. Disorganized-disoriented
   Main and Solomon's disorganized-disoriented pattern, contradictory or frozen behavior in the Strange Situation, is most tied to maltreatment and frightening care, where the attachment figure is both comfort and threat.
2. Insecure-avoidant
   Insecure-avoidant attachment is linked to rejecting or emotionally unavailable care; the infant uses an organized strategy of minimizing distress, unlike the disorganized pattern.
3. Insecure-resistant (ambivalent)
   Resistant (ambivalent) attachment is linked to inconsistent care and shows clingy, angry distress; it is still an organized strategy, not the breakdown seen with frightening care.

In Bronfenbrenner's ecological model, a society's cultural values and laws about divorce and child custody belong to which system?

1. Mesosystem
   The mesosystem is the set of links among a child's microsystems, such as parents and teachers talking; laws and cultural values sit at a broader level.
2. Macrosystem
   The macrosystem is the overarching culture, including values, customs, laws, and economic conditions, that shapes every inner layer; custody laws and attitudes toward divorce belong there.
3. Chronosystem
   The chronosystem is the dimension of time, such as when in a child's life a divorce happens and how its effects change; it does not hold laws or cultural values.

According to Thomas and Chess, which temperament type describes an infant who is initially withdrawn with new people and situations but adapts gradually with repeated exposure?

1. Behaviorally inhibited
   Behavioral inhibition is Kagan's construct of shyness toward the unfamiliar; it is related but is not one of the three Thomas and Chess types.
2. Difficult
   Difficult infants show irregular routines and intense negative reactions and adapt slowly; the infant in the stem adapts with time and repeated exposure.
3. Slow-to-warm-up
   Thomas and Chess's slow-to-warm-up infants withdraw from novelty at first, react mildly, and adapt gradually with repeated exposure.

A client with untreated panic disorder says heavy drinking is the only thing that calms her attacks. Which addiction theory, associated with Khantzian, fits this pattern?

1. Self-medication hypothesis
   Khantzian's self-medication hypothesis holds that people use substances that relieve specific painful states, here panic, which argues for treating co-occurring disorders together.
2. Genetic risk model
   A genetic model explains vulnerability through inherited risk; it does not account for using alcohol to relieve a particular psychiatric symptom.
3. Opponent-process theory
   Solomon's opponent-process theory explains escalating use through a growing negative after-state that follows the drug's pleasant effect; it does not start from a preexisting disorder.

Which philosophical emphasis most distinguishes professional counseling from other mental health professions?

1. A medical model focused on diagnosing pathology
   The medical model of diagnosing and treating illness is historically tied to psychiatry; counselors do diagnose, but that model does not define the profession's philosophy.
2. A wellness and developmental orientation
   Counseling's professional identity rests on a wellness, developmental, and prevention orientation that emphasizes strengths and normal life transitions over pathology.
3. An emphasis on unconscious conflict
   Unconscious conflict is the focus of psychoanalytic theory, one orientation used across professions rather than the philosophy that sets counseling apart.

Which organization administers the NCE and grants the NCC credential?

1. National Board for Certified Counselors
   NBCC, founded in 1982, grants the National Certified Counselor credential and administers the NCE and NCMHCE, which many state boards use for licensure.
2. American Counseling Association
   The American Counseling Association is the largest membership organization and publishes the ACA Code of Ethics, but it does not certify counselors or run the NCE.
3. American Mental Health Counselors Association
   AMHCA is the professional association for clinical mental health counselors; it advocates and sets practice standards but does not administer examinations.

What is the primary function of CACREP within the counseling profession?

1. Accrediting counselor education programs
   CACREP accredits master's and doctoral counselor education programs and sets curriculum standards, including the eight common-core areas the CPCE covers.
2. Writing the counseling profession's code of ethics
   The American Counseling Association writes and maintains the ACA Code of Ethics; an accrediting body requires ethics in the curriculum but does not author the code.
3. Certifying individual counselors at the national level
   National certification of individuals is the job of a separate certification board; CACREP evaluates programs, not people.

In a randomized trial, the researcher analyzes every randomized client in the group to which the client was assigned, including those who dropped out. What is this approach called?

1. Listwise deletion analysis
   Listwise deletion drops any case with missing data, the opposite of keeping dropouts in the analysis.
2. Intention-to-treat analysis
   Intention-to-treat analysis keeps every randomized client in the assigned group regardless of dropout, preserving randomization and giving a conservative, real-world estimate.
3. Per-protocol analysis
   Per-protocol analysis keeps only clients who completed treatment as planned; if dropouts differ from completers, it overstates the effect.

A researcher randomly selects 10 of a state's 60 high schools and surveys every school counselor in those 10 schools. Which sampling method is this?

1. Stratified random sampling
   Stratified sampling first divides the population into strata, such as school size or region, and then samples individuals from every stratum; here 50 of the 60 schools are left out entirely.
2. Systematic sampling
   Systematic sampling picks every kth person from a list after a random start; this researcher chose schools at random, not every kth counselor.
3. Cluster sampling
   Cluster sampling randomly selects whole naturally occurring groups, here schools, and then includes every member of the chosen groups, which is practical when no list of all individuals exists.

A program group of first-year students and a comparison group of seniors are measured; the first-years improve faster because they are developing more rapidly. Which threat is this?

1. Selection-maturation interaction
   Groups formed without random assignment that change at different natural rates create a selection-maturation interaction: first-year students would gain faster even without the program.
2. Compensatory rivalry among the seniors
   Compensatory rivalry is a comparison group working harder to outdo the treatment group; the seniors are not reacting to the program, they are maturing more slowly.
3. Statistical regression to the mean
   Statistical regression toward the mean arises when groups are selected for extreme scores; nothing in the stem says either group was chosen that way.

In a within-subjects study, each client experiences both relaxation and exercise conditions, with half receiving relaxation first. What does this procedure control?

1. Experimenter expectancy
   Experimenter expectancy is controlled by blinding the people who run the study, not by changing the order of conditions.
2. Regression toward the mean
   Regression toward the mean is a threat when participants are chosen for extreme scores; varying the order of conditions does nothing about it.
3. Order and carryover effects
   Counterbalancing the order of conditions spreads practice, fatigue, and carryover from the first condition evenly across both conditions.

A distribution of scores is tall and narrow, with most scores tightly bunched near the mean. How is this distribution described?

1. Leptokurtic
   Leptokurtic distributions are tall and narrow, with scores bunched near the mean and relatively heavy tails.
2. Mesokurtic
   Mesokurtic describes the moderate peak of the normal curve; a tall, narrow distribution is more peaked than that.
3. Platykurtic
   Platykurtic is the reverse, flat and spread out; mixing the prefixes is the usual error (lepto = slender, platy = flat).

Students scoring above a cutoff on a risk screener are assigned to a group program, and outcomes of students just above and just below the cutoff are compared. Which design is this?

1. Matched-pairs randomized design
   A matched-pairs design randomly assigns the members of matched pairs to conditions; no random assignment happens in this study.
2. Nonequivalent control group design
   A nonequivalent control group design compares intact groups that were not formed by a rule; here assignment follows a known cutoff score.
3. Regression discontinuity design
   Assigning treatment by a cutoff score and comparing cases just above and below it is a regression discontinuity design; a jump in outcomes at the cutoff indicates a program effect.

A researcher codes every article published in a counseling journal over ten years and counts how often each addresses social justice. Which method is this?

1. Meta-analysis
   Meta-analysis statistically combines effect sizes from empirical studies; this researcher codes the articles' topics instead of pooling their results.
2. Content analysis
   Content analysis systematically codes and counts features of communication, such as how often journal articles address social justice.
3. Discourse analysis
   Discourse analysis studies how language constructs meaning, identity, and power; it does not count topic frequencies across a set of texts.

In the three-component view of intergroup attitudes, a negative emotional reaction toward members of a group is best labeled as what?

1. Prejudice
   Prejudice is the affective component of intergroup attitudes, a negative feeling or prejudgment toward a group and its members.
2. Stereotype
   A stereotype is the cognitive component, an overgeneralized belief about a group; the stem describes a feeling, not a belief.
3. Discrimination
   Discrimination is the behavioral component, unequal treatment based on group membership; the stem describes an emotional reaction, not an action.

According to the R/CID model, in which stage is a client MOST likely to prefer a White counselor over one of their own racial group?

1. Conformity
   In Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's R/CID model, conformity involves preferring dominant-culture values and depreciating one's own group, so these clients often prefer a White counselor.
2. Integrative awareness
   In integrative awareness, the person has a secure identity and chooses a counselor on attitude and competence rather than race.
3. Introspection
   Introspection comes after resistance and immersion, when the person questions a rigid rejection of the dominant culture; a preference for a White counselor belongs to the first stage.

A refugee family lives in an ethnic enclave, speaks only its heritage language, and avoids the host society's schools and services. Which Berry acculturation strategy does this show?

1. Assimilation
   Assimilation is the opposite move, adopting the host culture and letting the heritage culture go; this family holds on to its heritage.
2. Separation
   Separation keeps the heritage culture while avoiding contact with the host society, as this family does through the enclave and its avoidance of host institutions.
3. Marginalization
   Marginalization is loss of connection with both cultures; this family stays strongly tied to its heritage culture.

After feeling guilty about racial injustice, a White man begins blaming people of color for their problems and idealizing White culture. Which Helms status is this?

1. Reintegration
   Reintegration is a retreat from the discomfort of disintegration into idealizing White culture and blaming people of color for their problems.
2. Immersion/emersion
   Immersion/emersion comes later, when a person seeks accurate information about Whiteness and redefines it in a nonracist way.
3. Disintegration
   Disintegration is the earlier status of guilt, conflict, and confusion when racism is first recognized; this man has moved past guilt into blame.

In Cross's Nigrescence model, which stage is marked by a secure Black identity that allows meaningful relationships with White people and other groups?

1. Internalization
   In Cross's internalization stage, a secure Black identity lets the person form genuine relationships with White people and other groups while staying committed to Black concerns.
2. Pre-encounter
   Pre-encounter is the starting stage of pro-White or race-minimizing attitudes, before any secure Black identity forms.
3. Immersion-emersion
   Immersion-emersion is the earlier stage of idealizing Blackness and rejecting Whiteness, which limits relationships across groups.

Brave Heart's term for cumulative emotional wounding across generations resulting from massive group trauma, such as the boarding-school era for American Indians, is what?

1. Historical trauma
   Brave Heart described historical trauma as cumulative emotional wounding across generations from massive group trauma such as colonization and boarding-school removal.
2. Racial battle fatigue
   Racial battle fatigue is the toll that chronic everyday racism takes on a person over time; it is not defined by transmission across generations.
3. Vicarious trauma
   Vicarious trauma is the change helpers undergo from repeated exposure to clients' trauma stories, not wounding passed down within a community.

Under the MSJCC, a counselor exploring how a client's marginalized status shapes her values, beliefs, and presenting concern is working in which domain?

1. Client worldview
   The client worldview domain asks counselors to understand the client's values, beliefs, and experiences of privilege and oppression and how these shape the presenting concern.
2. Counseling and advocacy interventions
   The interventions domain covers action at levels from intrapersonal to institutional and international; exploring the client's values and beliefs is the work of another domain.
3. Counselor self-awareness
   Counselor self-awareness turns the lens on the counselor's own identities, biases, and privilege, not on the client's.

A member of a closed counseling group announces that she plans to quit next week. According to Corey, what should the leader do?

1. Encourage her to discuss her reasons with the group first
   Members have the right to leave, and Corey advises talking the decision through with the group before going, so that she and the others can deal with its impact rather than face an abrupt ending.
2. Remind her that she agreed to stay until the group formally ends
   Members keep the freedom to leave a group; holding her to an attendance pledge turns a commitment into pressure and skips exploring why she wants to go.
3. Refer her to individual counseling instead of the group
   Referring her out before hearing her reasons treats the wish to leave as settled, when it may be material the group can work on.

A 4-year-old says, 'I goed to the park and saw two mouses.' What does this error illustrate?

1. Overregularization
   Overregularization, applying regular rules for past tense (-ed) and plurals (-s) to irregular words, shows the child has learned the rules and is overextending them, a normal step in preschool grammar.
2. Telegraphic speech
   Telegraphic speech is the two-word-stage pattern of content words without grammatical markers ('Daddy go'); this child is adding markers, only too widely.
3. Holophrastic speech
   Holophrastic speech uses a single word to carry a whole idea, around 12 to 18 months; this child speaks in full sentences.

A counselor plans to promote her practice on social media. According to the ACA Code of Ethics, how should she set up her online presence?

1. Use one account for everything, for transparency
   One account for everything sounds transparent, but it mixes personal content with professional contact and invites the dual relationships that H.6.a's separation is meant to prevent.
2. Post disguised client stories to show her skills
   Using client stories as marketing, even disguised, risks identification and uses clients for the counselor's gain; it is not an online presence setup the code supports.
3. Invite current clients to follow her personal account
   A personal virtual relationship with a current client is prohibited (ACA A.5.e), so inviting clients to her personal account creates exactly the boundary problem the code forbids.
4. Keep separate professional and personal accounts
   ACA H.6.a says that a counselor who wants both a professional and a personal social media presence keeps separate profiles, so clients and the public can tell the two apart.

According to the ACA Code of Ethics, what is a primary obligation of counseling supervisors?

1. Monitoring client welfare and the services supervisees provide
   ACA F.1.a names monitoring the services supervisees provide, and thereby client welfare, as a primary obligation of counseling supervisors.
2. Evaluating supervisees only at the end of training
   Supervisors give ongoing feedback and formal evaluation throughout supervision (F.6.a); an end-only review leaves problems uncorrected while clients are being seen.
3. Counseling supervisees about their own personal concerns
   Supervisors do not counsel their supervisees (F.6.c); they help supervisees find outside services, so this choice turns a dual relationship into a duty.

Which term, from Kocet and Herlihy, describes intentionally setting aside one's personal values so they do not intrude on a client's counseling?

1. Self-disclosure
   Self-disclosure is the counselor sharing personal information with a client; bracketing keeps the counselor's personal values out of the session instead.
2. Cultural encapsulation
   Cultural encapsulation (Wrenn) is the opposite problem: seeing clients only through one's own cultural assumptions without noticing it.
3. Ethical bracketing
   Kocet and Herlihy (2014) define ethical bracketing as intentionally setting aside one's personal values so they do not intrude on the client's counseling, in line with ACA A.4.b.

A counselor-researcher has finished collecting data for a study. According to the ACA Code of Ethics, what must she then give the participants?

1. A list of the other people in the study
   A list of other participants would break their confidentiality (ACA G.2.d); nothing in the code asks researchers to share who else took part.
2. A full explanation of the study's nature
   ACA G.2.g: after data are collected, counselors give participants full clarification of the nature of the study to remove any misconceptions, unless scientific or human values justify a delay.
3. The raw data gathered from every participant
   Raw data from every participant would expose other people's information; the obligation after data collection is an explanation of the study, not the data set.
4. Payment for the time they spent on it
   Payment for participants' time is optional and agreed at recruitment; the code's post-collection duty is to explain the study, and payment does not replace it.

In a malpractice case, against what standard is a counselor's conduct usually measured?

1. What the most highly expert counselor in that specialty would do
   The law asks for ordinary reasonable care, not the performance of the most expert practitioner; even a specialist is measured against a reasonable specialist, not the best one.
2. Whether the counselor acted in good faith and with sincerity
   Acting in good faith does not excuse care that falls below the standard; negligence requires no bad intent, only a breach of reasonable care that causes harm.
3. What a reasonable counselor with similar training would do
   Malpractice is judged against the standard of care: what a reasonable, prudent counselor with similar training would have done in similar circumstances, usually shown through expert testimony and professional codes.

What term describes a client unconsciously redirecting feelings about an important early figure, such as a parent, onto the counselor?

1. Countertransference
   Countertransference runs the other way, the counselor's reactions to the client; the trap is the direction of the feelings.
2. Transference
   Transference is the client unconsciously directing feelings about early significant figures onto the counselor; psychoanalytic work treats it as material to explore.
3. Reaction formation
   Reaction formation is a defense that converts a feeling into its opposite; it is not about directing early feelings onto the counselor.

According to Rogers, a child who learns she is valued only when she earns high grades has internalized what?

1. conditions of worth
   Rogers' conditions of worth are the conditions under which a child learns she is valued; internalized, they make self-regard depend on meeting them, here high grades.
2. an inferiority complex
   An inferiority complex is Adler's term for an exaggerated sense of inadequacy; it is not how Rogers explains conditional self-worth.
3. a strict superego
   A strict superego is Freud's account of internalized parental standards; the stem asks for Rogers' concept, and the trap is that both describe internalized rules.

Which of the following approaches is grounded in postmodern social constructionism?

1. Adlerian therapy
   Adlerian therapy is phenomenological and holistic, but it is a modern theory of lifestyle and social interest, not a postmodern constructionist one.
2. Reality therapy
   Reality therapy (Glasser) is built on choice theory and responsibility for present behavior; it is a modern, not a postmodern constructionist, approach.
3. Narrative therapy
   Narrative therapy (White and Epston) is built on social constructionism: problems live in the stories people construct about their lives, and those stories can be re-authored.

A client who fears blushing in meetings is told by a counselor trained in Frankl's approach to try to blush as deeply as possible. Which technique is this?

1. Systematic desensitization
   Systematic desensitization is a graded, relaxation-paired behavioral method, not Frankl's technique.
2. Attitude modification
   Attitude modification in logotherapy changes the client's stance toward an unavoidable situation; it does not ask for the symptom on purpose.
3. Paradoxical intention
   Paradoxical intention asks the client to intend or exaggerate the feared symptom, which breaks the anticipatory anxiety that feeds it.